National And International MCQ’s

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National And International MCQ’s

  1. Which of the following countries is not a current member of the European Free Trade Association (EFTA)?

A) Switzerland

B) Iceland

C) Liechtenstein

D) Finland

Answer: D

  1. The India–EFTA Trade and Economic Partnership Agreement (TEPA) was signed in:

A) January 2023, Geneva

B) March 2024, New Delhi

C) April 2024, Brussels

D) February 2023, Zurich

Answer: B

  1. The TEPA includes provisions on “Sanitary and Phytosanitary Measures.” These relate primarily to:

A) Digital trade and cybersecurity

B) Food safety and plant/animal health standards

C) Cross-border taxation

D) Environmental impact assessments

Answer: B

  1. According to the Nature Plants study, the steady increase in the size of Amazon trees is primarily attributed to:

A) Nutrient enrichment from the Andes Mountains

B) The carbon fertilisation effect caused by rising CO₂ levels

C) Genetic adaptation due to deforestation pressures

D) Enhanced precipitation in equatorial regions

Answer: B

  1. The carbon fertilisation effect refers to:

A) The conversion of soil carbon into biomass by microorganisms

B) The increase in photosynthetic activity due to higher CO₂ concentrations

C) The release of carbon from decaying organic matter

D) The reduction of atmospheric carbon by oceanic absorption

Answer: B

  1. Which country contains the largest share of the Amazon rainforest?

A) Peru

B) Colombia

C) Brazil

D) Venezuela

Answer: C

  1. Which of the following pairs is correctly matched?

Tribes

Region

A) Yanomamo

Amazon Basin

B) Inuit

Northern Andes

C) Zulu

Brazil

D) Maori

Venezuela

Answer: A

  1. Brazil’s Forest Code (2012) requires Amazonian landowners to:

A) Reforest only 20% of their land

B) Maintain up to 80% of their land as Legal Forest Reserve

C) Use land exclusively for eco-tourism

D) Transfer ownership to indigenous tribes

Answer: B

  1. The Amazon Cooperation Treaty Organization (ACTO) focuses on:

A) Military cooperation among Amazon nations

B) Regional cooperation on sustainable development and conservation

C) Establishing trade barriers within Amazon countries

D) Reducing hydroelectric projects in the Andes

Answer: B

  1. Which of the following global initiatives supports reducing emissions from deforestation and promotes sustainable forest management?

A) UNEP Green Fund

B) UN REDD+ Programme

C) G-20 Forest Alliance

D) Kyoto Protocol Annex II

Answer: B

  1. The Amazon Fund (2008), supported by which of the following countries:

A) Norway and Sweden

B) Norway and Finland

C) Norway and Germany

D) Sweden and Finland

Answer: C

  1. The idea of setting up a Public Service Commission in India was first provided by which of the following Acts?

A) Indian Councils Act, 1892

B) Government of India Act, 1909

C) Government of India Act, 1919

D) Government of India Act, 1935

Answer: C

  1. The establishment of the Public Service Commission in October 1926 was based on the recommendations of:

A) Islington Commission (1912)

B) Montagu-Chelmsford Report (1918)

C) Lee Commission (1924)

D) Simon Commission (1928)

Answer: C

  1. Consider the following statements regarding Union Public Services Commission:

a). The tenure of the Chairman and members is 6 years or till 62 years of age, whichever is earlier.

b). The UPSC Chairman after completing their term can be reappointed once by the President.

c). The removal of the Chairman or a member by the President requires resolution passed by both Houses of Parliament.

Which of the above is/are correct?

A) Only a and b

B) Only a and c

C) Only b and c          

D) None

  1. The President can remove a UPSC member without referring to the Supreme Court in which of the following situations?

a). Adjudged insolvent

b). Engages in paid employment outside office duties

c). Found guilty of corruption

d). Mentally or physically unfit

Select the correct answer using the code below:

  1. A) a, b and c only
  2. B) a, b and d only
  3. C) a and c only
  4. D) b and d only

Answer: B

  1. Who is regarded as the “Father of Civil Services in India”?

A) Lord Wellesley

B) Lord Cornwallis

C) Warren Hastings

D) Lord Curzon

Answer: B

  1. The Charter Act of 1853 is significant because it:

A) Introduced competitive examinations for civil services

B) Abolished the dual government system

C) Extended the rule of the East India Company

D) Created the Indian Legislative Council

Answer: A

  1. Who was the first Indian to qualify for the Indian Civil Services (ICS)?

A) Dadabhai Naoroji

B) Surendranath Banerjee

C) Satyendranath Tagore

D) R.C. Dutt

Answer: C

  1. The provision for creation of All India Services such as IAS, IPS, and IFS is laid down in:

A) Article 309

B) Article 310

C) Article 311

D) Article 312

Answer: D

  1. Articles 315 to 323 of the Indian Constitution deal with:

A) Election Commission of India

B) Public Service Commissions for both at the Union and at the States.

C) Emergency Provisions

D) Finance Commission

Answer: B

  1. With reference to the new India–Bhutan railway projects, consider the following statements:
  2. The projects originated from the 2005 Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) on cross-border rail connectivity.
  3. These projects are being jointly implemented by the Indian Railways and the Royal Bhutan Army.
  4. The initiative aligns with India’s Neighbourhood First Policy and complements its commitment of $1.2 billion for Bhutan’s 13th Five-Year Plan.

Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?

Options:

A) a and c only

B) b and c only

C) a and b only

D) a, b and c

Answer: A

  1. With reference to NASA’s Interstellar Mapping and Acceleration Probe (IMAP) mission, consider the following statements:
  2. IMAP is primarily intended to study the boundary region between the heliosphere and interstellar space.
  3. The mission aims to understand how solar and cosmic particles are accelerated and how the heliosphere shields the solar system from galactic radiation.
  4. It is positioned at the Earth–Sun Lagrange Point 2 (L2) for optimal observation of the heliotail.

Which of the statements given above is/ are not correct?

Options:

A) Only 2

B) Only 1

C) All are correct

D) None are correct

Answer: B

  1. With reference to the International Civil Aviation Organization (ICAO), consider the following statements:
  2. ICAO is a specialized agency of the United Nations established under the Chicago Convention of 1944.
  3. The ICAO Council, elected every three years, comprises 36 Member States categorized under three parts based on specific criteria.
  4. Part II of the ICAO Council includes States that make the largest contribution to the provision of facilities for international civil air navigation.
  5. India was elected to Part III of the ICAO Council for the 2025–2028 term.

Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?

Options:

A) 1, 2 and 3 only

B) 1, 3 and 4 only

C) 2, 3 and 4 only

D) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer: A

  1. The tradition of presenting the Silver Trumpet and Trumpet Banner to the President’s Bodyguard (PBG):
  2. Was initiated by Dr. Rajendra Prasad in 1957 to mark the ceremonial association between the President and the Regiment.
  3. Represents the highest honor bestowed by the Head of State on any military unit in India.
  4. Is unique to the President’s Bodyguard, symbolizing their status as the President’s personal troops.

Which of the statements given above is/ are not correct?

Options:

  1. 1 and 3 only
  2. 1 and 2 only
  3. All of the above
  4. None of the above

Answer: D

  1. With reference to India’s first Dugong Conservation Reserve, consider the following statements:

a). It was established under the WLP Act, 1972 by the Tamil Nadu government in northern Palk Bay.

b). It contains extensive seagrass meadows which serve as feeding grounds for dugongs, and often referred to as the “farmers or gardeners of the sea”.

c). It is listed as Vulnerable on the IUCN Red List and included in Schedule I of the WLP Act, 1972.

d). It was recognized as India’s first marine biosphere reserve by the IUCN in 2025.

Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?

Options:

  1. Only 2
  2. Only 3
  3. None are correct
  4. All are correct

Answer: B

  1. In India, populations of the Dugong (Dugong dugon) are naturally found in which of the following regions?
  2. Gulf of Mannar
  3. Palk Bay
  4. Gulf of Kutch
  5. Andaman and Nicobar Islands

Select the correct answer using the code below:

Options:

  1. Only 2
  2. Only 3
  3. None are correct
  4. All are correct

Answer: D

  1. With reference to the “Payments Regulatory Board (PRB)”, consider the following statements:

a). It has been constituted by the RBI under Banking Regulation Act, 1949 and it functions under the RBI Governor.

b). It is responsible for the regulation and supervision of all payment systems (electronic, non-electronic, domestic, and cross-border).

c). It must meet at least once every quarter and decisions can be made through circulation if directed by the Chairperson.

Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?

Options:

  1. a Only
  2. b Only
  3. a and b only
  4. All are correct

Answer: B

  1. Consider the following statements regarding the Accidental Deaths and Suicides in India (ADSI) 2023 Report:

a). The report is published under the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation and released by National Crime Records Bureau.

b). The data collection is primarily based on police records, covering both natural and unnatural causes of death.

c). Traffic accidents accounted for the highest share

of total accidental deaths in India in 2022.

d). Karnataka recorded the highest number of suicides in terms of farmer suicides in 2023.

Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?

  1. a, b and c only
  2. a, c and d only
  3. b and c only
  4. a, b and d

Answer: B

29. Which of the following correctly explains the Model Youth Gram Sabha (MYGS) initiative?

A) Inspired by the Model Parliament to educate students about parliamentary democracy.

B) Inspired by the Model UN to promote awareness about Panchayati Raj institutions among students.

C) Inspired by the Smart Village programme to improve digital literacy in rural schools.

D) Inspired by the Bharat Scouts & Guides to enhance youth leadership and community service.

Answer: B

  1. Which of the following statements about the Bathukamma festival is NOT correct?

A) It is celebrated predominantly in Telangana.

B) It is closely associated with the worship of Goddess Gauri.

C) The festival’s timing coincides with Diwali.

D) It celebrates life, harvest, and feminine energy.

Answer: C

  1. As per RBI “spread” in floating-rate loans refers to:
  1. The difference between fixed and floating interest rates.
  2. The additional percentage added to the benchmark rate to determine the final lending rate.
  3. The difference between deposit and lending interest rates.
  4. The margin charged by banks for loan processing.

Answer: B

  1. Consider the following statements regarding the RoDTEP scheme:

a). It is aligned with WTO norms and the Ministry of Finance is responsible for administering the RoDTEP scheme.

b). It aims to reimburse exporters for embedded duties, taxes, and levies not refunded under any other scheme.

c). Reduces export costs, thereby encouraging competitiveness.

How many statements given above is/are correct?

  1. Only 2
  2. Only 1
  3. All are correct
  4. None are correct

Answer: A

  1. Consider the following statements regarding the Road Accidents in India, 2023

a). It was released by NCRB and Karnataka recorded the maximum fatalities on National Highways.

b). The Sundar Committee recommended the creation of a National Road Safety Policy and a National Road Safety Board.

c). The UN Decade of Action for Road Safety (2021–2030), declares  the target for reducing road traffic deaths and injuries by 60% by 2030.

How many statements given above is/are correct?

  1. Only 2
  2. Only 1
  3. All are correct
  4. None are correct

Answer: B

  1. Which of the following institutions was founded by Dr. Muthulakshmi Reddy to support women and social welfare causes?

A) Seva Sadan Society and Avvai Home

B) Women’s India Association

C) Lady Irwin College

D) All India Women’s Conference

Answer: A

  1. Consider the following statements regarding the “National Pulses Mission” :

a). It is supported by Indian Council of Agricultural Research (ICAR), Krishi Vigyan Kendras (KVKs)

and State Agricultural Universities and State Agencies.

b). It is to achieve self-sufficiency (Aatmanirbharta) in domestic pulses production.

c). Tur, Urad, and Masoor are the major pulses will receive 100% procurement support under PM-AASHA as part of this mission.

Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?

  1. a and b only
  2. a and c only
  3. All are incorrect
  4. All are correct

Answer: D

  1. In the context of the Amazon rainforest, what does the term “Flying Rivers” refer to?

A) Underground aquifers connecting different parts of South America.

B) Massive streams of water vapour transported through the atmosphere.

C) Seasonal flood channels of the Amazon River basin.

D) Subterranean water channels feeding into the Amazon River.

Answer: B

  1. Who among the following announces the MSP for various crops in India?

A) Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices (CACP)

B) Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare

C) Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs (CCEA)

D) NITI Aayog

Answer: C

  1. The Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices (CACP) recommends MSP based on several criteria. Which of the following is not one of those criteria?

A) Demand and supply situation of the crop

B) Level of buffer stock held by FCI

C) Inter-crop price parity

D) Minimum 50% margin over cost of production

Answer: B

  1. Which of the following government agency is implementing the Biomedical Research Career Programme (BRCP)?

A) Department of Health and Family Welfare

B) Department of Science and Technology

C) Department of Biotechnology

D) Ministry of AYUSH

Answer: C

  1. What distinguishes a biostimulant from a biofertilizer?

A) Biostimulants act by improving natural plant functions; biofertilizers directly supply nutrients through microorganisms.

B) Biostimulants fix atmospheric nitrogen; biofertilizers enhance photosynthesis.

C) Biostimulants are always chemical; biofertilizers are always organic.

D) Both terms mean the same in agricultural science.

Answer: A

  1. The term “Tomahawk” described as:

A). A missile designed and developed by Ukraine.

B). A missile designed and developed by USA.

C). A missile designed and developed by Russia.

D). A missile designed and developed by UK.

Answer: B

  1. Pandit Chhannulal Mishra was known for his association with which gharana of Hindustani classical music?

A) Gwalior Gharana

B) Kirana Gharana

C) Agra Gharana

D) Jaipur-Atrauli Gharana

 Answer: B

  1. Which of the following best describes the purpose of the NATO Pipeline System (NPS)?

A) To transport weapons and ammunition among NATO members.

B) To supply fuel and lubricants to NATO forces with operational flexibility.

C) To deliver humanitarian supplies during natural disasters.

D) To serve as a communication and data exchange network for NATO bases.

Answer: B

  1. The PM Dhan-Dhaanya Krishi Yojana (PMDDKY) is modeled on the lines of which existing flagship programme?

A) Rashtriya Krishi Vikas Yojana

B) Aspirational Districts Programme

C) National Rural Livelihood Mission

D) PM Krishi Sinchayee Yojana

Answer: B

  1. Where is Airbus Helicopters, in partnership with Tata Advanced Systems, setting up the final assembly line for H125 helicopters?
  1. Hyderabad, Telangana
  2. Bengaluru, Karnataka
  3. Vemagal, Karnataka
  4. Nagpur, Maharashtra

Answer: C

  1. Which of the following statements about Snow Leopards is incorrect?
  1. They are found only in India and Nepal.
  2. They are classified as ‘Vulnerable’ on the IUCN Red List.
  3. They are listed under Schedule-I of the Indian Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972.
  4. They inhabit the mountainous regions of Central and South Asia.

Answer: A

  1. Which of the following correctly reflects the philosophical distinction of the “Abhidhamma Pitaka” within Buddhist literature?
  1. It elaborates on ritual practices and monastic discipline.
  2. It presents systematic analysis of mind and mental processes beyond ethical rules.
  3. It focuses solely on stories of Buddha’s previous births.
  4. It contains dialogues between Buddha and his disciples about moral conduct.

Answer: B

  1. Which of the following statements about perigean spring tides is correct?
  1. They occur when the Moon is at apogee and the Earth is farthest from the Sun.
  2. They are caused by the combined gravitational pull of the Sun and the Moon when the Moon is at perigee.
  3. They are weaker than normal spring tides because the Moon is farther from the Earth.
  4. They are purely atmospheric phenomena unrelated to the Moon’s orbit.

Answer: B

  1. Which of the following statements regarding the Moscow Format is correct?
  1. It is a military alliance under the leadership of Russia and China.
  2. It includes both regional and NATO countries as permanent members.
  3. It provides a diplomatic platform for regional countries to coordinate on Afghanistan’s peace process.
  4. It was established under the United Nations mandate.

Answer: C

  1. The Polar Silk Road is primarily aimed at:
  1. Strengthening maritime connectivity between China and Africa via the Indian Ocean.
  2. Developing navigable Arctic routes as part of China’s Belt and Road Initiative.
  3. Expanding China’s military presence in the Antarctic region.
  4. Establishing overland transport corridors through Central Asia to Europe.

Answer: B

  1. The Insurrection Act in the United States primarily empowers the President to:
  1. Declare martial law across the country during any emergency.
  2. Deploy the military or federalize the National Guard for domestic law enforcement during insurrections or civil unrest.
  3. Suspend the Constitution temporarily in the event of rebellion.
  4. Dissolve state governments that fail to maintain law and order.

Answer: B

  1. Which of the following eligibility conditions is correct for beneficiaries under the PM Surya Ghar Muft Bijli Yojana?
  1. Any Indian household irrespective of roof ownership.
  2. Only urban households using grid electricity for more than 10 years.
  3. Only households that already have rooftop solar panels.
  4. Any Indian citizen owning a suitable roof and not already availing similar rooftop solar subsidies.

 Answer: D

  1. In the context of “Operation HAECHI-VI”, which of the following statements is correct?
  1. It was conducted solely by the CBI under the Ministry of Home Affairs.
  2. It was a joint global operation coordinated by INTERPOL targeting cyber-financial crimes.
  3. It was launched under the Financial Action Task Force (FATF) to monitor cryptocurrency use.
  4. It was a bilateral initiative between India and South Korea.

Answer: B

  1. The PM GatiShakti National Master Plan (PMGS-NMP) aims primarily to:
  1. Promote rural employment generation through digital infrastructure.
  2. Provide multimodal connectivity and improve logistics efficiency across India.
  3. Create an urban mass housing programme for industrial workers.
  4. Strengthen fiscal federalism through infrastructure grants to states.

 Answer: B

  1. Which of the following statements about India’s tobacco control progress is correct?
  1. India has achieved exactly the WHO NCD target of 30% reduction (2010–2025).
  2. India is behind the WHO NCD target for tobacco reduction.
  3. India is on track for a 43% reduction in prevalence (2010–2025), exceeding the WHO NCD target.
  4. India has achieved less than 20% reduction in tobacco use since 2010.

Answer: C

  1. The Yellow Line Campaign introduced in India primarily aims to:

A) Mark tobacco cultivation zones

B) Indicate areas for public smoking

C) Reinforce ban on tobacco sales within 100 yards of schools

D) Identify tobacco-free workplaces

Answer: C

  1. In Common Cause v. Union of India (2018), which fundamental right was expanded to include the ‘Right to Die with Dignity’?
  1. Article 14
  2. Article 19
  3. Article 21
  4. Article 32

Answer: C

  1. With reference to the 2025 Nobel Prize in Physiology or Medicine, consider the following statements:
  2. The prize was awarded for discoveries that explained how the human body maintains immune tolerance and prevents autoimmune disorders.
  3. The discovery involved a specific group of T-cells that suppress immune responses against self-cells.
  4. These cells were first discovered in the bone marrow.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. 1 and 2 only
  2. 2 and 3 only
  3. 1 only
  4. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: A

  1. Which of the following statements best describes the function of Regulatory T-cells (Tregs)?
  1. They promote antibody production by B-cells.
  2. They activate macrophages and neutrophils during infection.
  3. They suppress immune activation and maintain self-tolerance.
  4. They destroy virus-infected cells directly.

Answer: C

  1. Consider the following statements regarding the Nobel Prize system:
  2. The Nobel Peace Prize is awarded in Oslo, while all other prizes are awarded in Stockholm.
  3. The Nobel Foundation directly decides the award winners.
  4. The Nobel Foundation is the administrative and financial manager of the prizes.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. 1 and 3 only
  2. 2 and 3 only
  3. 1 only
  4. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: A

  1. With reference to the mud volcanoes of India, consider the following statements:

1. They are found only in the Andaman and Nicobar Islands.

2. They emit molten lava and ash similar to true volcanoes.

3. They are associated with regions having hydrocarbon deposits.

How many of the statement/s given above is/are correct?

  1. Only 1
  2. Only 2
  3. All
  4. None

Answer: B

  1. Which of the following gases are typically emitted by mud volcanoes?
  1. Methane
  1. Carbon dioxide
  1. Hydrogen sulfide

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

  1. 1 only
  2. 1 and 2 only
  3. 1, 2 and 3
  4. 2 and 3 only

Answer: C

  1. The Baratang Island is geologically significant because:

A) It hosts India’s only active lava volcano.

B) It lies along a subduction zone between the Indian Plate and the Burmese Microplate.

C) It marks the mid-ocean ridge between the Eurasian and Indo-Australian Plates.

D) It is the only island with both coral reefs and glaciers.

Answer: B

  1. Which of the following statements about the Andaman–Nicobar Islands is/are correct?
  2. They are a chain of volcanic islands located along the convergent boundary between the Indian and Eurasian Plates.
  3. The region experiences frequent earthquakes due to subduction activity.
  4. Barren Island, part of this chain, is India’s only active lava volcano.

How many of the statement/s given above is/are correct?

  1. Only One
  2. Only Two
  3. All are correct
  4. None are correct

Answer: B

  1. With reference to the MY Bharat–National Service Scheme (NSS) Awards, consider the following statements:

 

  1. The NSS was launched in 1969 to commemorate the birth Centenary of Mahatma Gandhi.
  2. The awards were instituted by the Ministry of Education in 1993–94 and are presented by the President of India every year.
  3. They recognise outstanding voluntary community service under the NSS framework by having a motto of “Not Me, But You”.
  4. Both individual volunteers and institutions are eligible for the awards.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. 1, 2 and 3 only
  2. 2, 3 and 4 only
  3. 1, 3 and 4 only
  4. 1, 2 and 4 only

Answer: B

  1. With reference to the PM–SETU scheme, consider the following statements:

 

  1. The scheme is implemented by the Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship as a Centrally Sponsored Scheme.
  2. It adopts a hub-and-spoke model with industry-led Special Purpose Vehicles managing the clusters.
  3. Each spoke ITI functions as an independent centre of excellence, unlinked from the hub ITI.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. 1 and 2 only
  2. 2 only
  3. 1 and 3 only
  4. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: A

  1. Which of the following components are included under the Jal Jeevan Mission’s implementation strategy?
  1. Greywater management and water quality monitoring.
  2. Operation and maintenance of in-village infrastructure.
  3. Convergence with other schemes for source sustainability.
  4. Subsidy for urban household tap connections

Select the correct answer using the code below:

  1. 1 and 4 only
  2. 1, 2 and 3 only
  3. 2 and 3 only
  4. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer: B

68.With reference to the Securities Transaction Tax (STT) in India, consider the following statements:

  1. STT is a direct tax levied on the purchase and sale of securities transacted through recognized stock exchanges in India.
  2. STT is governed under the Securities Contracts (Regulation) Act, 1956.
  3. STT was introduced to curb tax evasion and increase transparency in capital market transactions.
  4. It applies to both profit-making and loss-making transactions.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. 1, 2 and 4 only
  2. 1, 3 and 4 only
  3. 2, 3 and 4 only
  4. 1, 2 and 3 only

Answer: B

  1. Which of the following financial instruments attract Securities Transaction Tax (STT)?
  1. Equity shares listed on recognized stock exchanges.
  2. Equity-oriented mutual fund units.
  3. Derivative instruments such as futures and options.
  4. Sovereign Gold Bonds (SGBs).

Select the correct answer using the code below:

  1. 1, 2 and 3 only
  2. 1 and 4 only
  3. 2, 3 and 4 only
  4. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer: A

  1. Which of the following existing Very Large Gas Carriers (VLGCs) are operated by the Shipping Corporation of India (SCI), apart from Shivalik?
  1. Sahyadri
  2. Anandamayi
  3. Ganga
  4. Narmada

Select the correct answer using the code below:

  1. 1 and 2 only
  2. 2 and 3 only
  3. 3 and 4 only
  4. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer: A

  1. With reference to the World Para Athletics Championships, consider the following statements:
  1. The event is organized by the International Paralympic Committee (IPC).
  2. It is held every four years, in the same cycle as the Paralympic Games.
  3. The first edition of the Championships took place in Berlin, Germany, in 1994.
  4. The 2025 World Para Athletics Championships official mascot is Viraaj symbolizes equality and innovation in sports technology.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. 1, 2 and 3 only
  2. 2 and 3 only
  3. 1 and 3 only
  4. 1, 2 and 4 only

Answer: C

  1. With reference to the Paramparagat Krishi Vikas Yojana (PKVY), consider the following statements:

 

  1. It provides end-to-end support to farmers, including production, certification, processing, and marketing of organic produce.
  2. Under the scheme, farmers adopting organic farming practices receive ₹31,500 per hectare for a three-year period.
  3. The cluster model involves mobilizing farmers over a minimum of 20 hectares for collective organic farming.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. 1 and 2 only
  2. 2 and 3 only
  3. 1 and 3 only
  4. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: D

  1. Which of the following statements correctly differentiates Paramparagat Krishi Vikas Yojana (PKVY) from National Programme for Organic Production (NPOP)?
  1. PKVY is export-oriented while NPOP is meant for domestic trade.
  2. PKVY follows Participatory Guarantee System (PGS) certification, while NPOP uses third-party certification.
  3. PKVY focuses on large-scale farmers, while NPOP targets smallholders.
  4. Both use the same certification and regulatory framework.

Answer: B

  1. Which of the following pairs is correctly matched with its primary focus?

 

Scheme / Initiative

Primary Focus

1.Paramparagat Krishi Vikas Yojana

Cluster-based organic farming across India.

2. Mission Organic Value Chain Development for North Eastern Region (MOVCDNER)

Organic value chain development in North Eastern Region.

3. Jaivik Kheti Portal

Online platform for organic trade and awareness.

4. Large Area Certification (LAC) programme

Organic certification for already chemical-free areas.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

  1. 1, 2 and 3 only
  2. 1, 2 and 4 only
  3. 1, 3 and 4 only
  4. 1, 2, 3 and 4

 Answer: D

  1. With reference to India’s position in global organic agriculture, consider the following statements:
  1. As per IFOAM Statistics 2022, India ranks 4th globally in terms of total area under organic certification.
  2. India ranks first globally in terms of the number of organic farmers.
  3. Sikkim is the first Indian state to achieve 100% organic status.

Which of the statements given above is/are NOT correct?

  1. 1 and 2 only
  2. 2 and 3 only
  3. 1 and 3 only
  4. All are correct

Answer: D

  1. Which of the following statements correctly differentiates between Vande Mataram and Jana Gana Mana in the constitutional context?

A.Both are accorded equal status under Article 51A(a).

  1. Both are mentioned in the Constitution’s text.
  2. Vande Mataram was given equal national status through a Presidential order in 1950, but Article 51A(a) mandates respect only for the National Anthem (Jana Gana Mana).
  3. Vande Mataram replaced Jana Gana Mana as the national song in 1950.

Answer: C

  1. With reference to Leprosy (Hansen’s Disease), consider the following statements:
  1. It is caused by the bacterium Mycobacterium leprae.
  2. Transmission occurs mainly through droplets from the nose and mouth of untreated cases.
  3. Multibacillary leprosy indicates a lower density of bacilli and milder clinical symptoms.
  4. Introduction of Multidrug Therapy (MDT) in India began in 1983, which revolutionized treatment outcomes.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. 1 and 2 only
  2. 1, 2 and 4 only
  3. 2, 3 and 4 only
  4. 4.1, 3 and 4 only

Answer: B

  1. With reference to India’s National Leprosy Eradication Programme (NLEP), consider the following statements:
  1. It is a Centrally Sponsored Scheme under the National Health Mission (NHM).
  2. Its target is to achieve interruption of leprosy transmission by 2027.
  3. Nikusth 2.0, launched in 2023, is a mobile-based application for patient teleconsultation and telemedicine.
  4. Leprosy screening has been integrated into Ayushman Bharat’s Comprehensive Primary Health Care activities.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

  1. 1, 2 and 4 only
  2. 2 and 3 only
  3. 1 and 3 only
  4. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer: A

  1. The Namchik–Namphuk Coal Block, often seen in news, is located in which of the following regions of India?
  1. Tirap district, Arunachal Pradesh
  2. Changlang district, Arunachal Pradesh
  3. Tinsukia district, Assam
  4. Mon district, Nagaland

Answer: B

  1. Which of the following legislative frameworks collectively enable commercial coal mining in India?

 

  1. Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulation) Act, 1957
  2. Coal Mines (Special Provisions) Act, 2015
  3. Coal Bearing Areas (Acquisition and Development) Act, 1957
  4. Environment (Protection) Act, 1986

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

  1. 1 and 2 only
  2. 1, 2 and 3 only
  3. 2 and 4 only
  4. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer: D

  1. On Earth, phosphine (PH₃) is primarily produced by:

 

  1. Industrial combustion of fossil fuels
  2. Volcanic emissions rich in sulfur
  3. Anaerobic microbial activity in oxygen-poor environments.
  4. Photochemical reactions in the upper atmosphere

Answer: C

  1. In the context of India’s bilateral naval engagements, which of the following pairs is correctly matched?

Naval Exercise

Partner Country

VARUNA

France

MALABAR

Japan & USA

AUSINDEX

United Kingdom

KONKAN

Australia

Select the correct answer using the code below:

  1. 1 and 2 only
  2. 1, 2 and 3 only
  3. 1, 2, 3 and 4
  4. 2 and 4 only

Answer: A

  1. Which of the following statements is NOT correct about Shram Shakti Niti 2025?
  1. It seeks to provide universal and portable social security to all workers.
  2. It aims to create a resilient and equitable labour ecosystem ensuring dignity for all.
  3. It proposes the merger of all labour codes into a single Employment Code.
  4. It emphasises digital skilling through the National Career Service–DPI.

Answer: C

  1. Which of the following pairs of Invasive Alien Species and their impact is incorrectly matched?

Invasive Alien Species

Their impacts

A. Lantana camara

Prevents forest regeneration by outcompeting native plants.

B. Eichhornia crassipes

Reduces oxygen in water bodies, harming aquatic life.

C. Parthenium hysterophorus

Improves soil fertility and prevents erosion.

D. Clarias gariepinus

Threatens native fish biodiversity.

Answer: C

 

  1. Assertion (A): Ballast water management is an essential step in controlling terrestrial invasive species.

Reason (R): Ballast water is mainly responsible for spreading plant invasions on land.

A.Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.

  1. Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
  2. A is true, but R is false.
  3. Both A and R are false.

Answer: D

  1. Which of the following statements correctly differentiates the biometric authentication feature for UPI transactions introduced in 2025?
  1. The authentication is processed through centralized Aadhaar servers maintained by UIDAI.
  2. It enables face and fingerprint verification locally on the user’s device, enhancing privacy.
  3. It eliminates the need for PIN-based authentication for eligible users.
  4. It is mandatory for all UPI users above a certain transaction threshold.

Select the correct answer using the code below:

  1. 1 and 4 only
  2. 2 and 3 only
  3. 1, 2, and 3 only
  4. 2 only

Answer: B

  1. With reference to the National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI), consider the following statements:
  1. It was established by the Reserve Bank of India and the Indian Banks’ Association under the Companies Act, 1956.
  2. It functions under the provisions of the RBI Act, 1934.
  3. It operates as a not for-profit company handling all wholesale and retail payment systems in India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. 1 and 2 only
  2. 2 and 3 only
  3. 1 and 3 only
  4. 1, 2, and 3

Answer: C

  1. Which of the following institutions are covered under the Reserve Bank – Integrated Ombudsman Scheme (RB-IOS)?

 

  1. Scheduled Commercial Banks
  2. State Co-operative Banks
  3. Primary (Urban) Co-operative Banks with deposits below ₹50 crore
  4. NBFCs with asset size of ₹100 crore or more that accept deposits

Select the correct answer using the code below:

  1. 1, 2, and 4 only
  2. 1, 3, and 4 only
  3. 1 and 4 only
  4. 1, 2, 3, and 4

Answer: A

  1. Recently, the Government of India announced plans to promote PM-KUSUM in African and island nations. This initiative will be channelled through:

 

  1. The International Solar Alliance (ISA)
  2. The International Renewable Energy Agency (IRENA)
  3. The United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP)
  4. The World Bank’s Solar Initiative

 Answer: A

  1. PM-KUSUM Scheme has three main components. Which of the following correctly matches them with their objectives?

Component

Objective
  1. Component-A

Decentralized grid-connected renewable energy power plants.
  1. Component-B

Stand-alone solar pumps.
  1. Component-C

Solarization of existing grid-connected pumps.

Select the correct answer using the code below:

  1. a only
  2. a and b only
  3. a, b, and c
  4. b and c only

Answer: C

  1. Under the Surrogacy (Regulation) Act, 2021, a surrogate mother must fulfill which of the following conditions?
  1. She must be a close relative of the intending couple.
  2. She must be a married woman having at least one biological child of her own.
  3. She must be between 25 to 35 years of age.
  4. She can act as a surrogate mother more than once if medically approved.

Select the correct answer using the code below:

  1. 1, 2, and 3 only
  2. 2, 3, and 4 only
  3. 1, 3, and 4 only
  4. 1, 2, 3, and 4

Answer: A

  1. The Atacama Desert remains one of the driest places on Earth primarily because —
  1. It lies in the rain shadow region of the Andes Mountains.
  2. The cold Peru (Humboldt) Current suppresses rainfall by cooling the air masses.
  3. It experiences strong westerly winds that carry moisture away.
  4. Both A and B.

Answer: D

  1. The Sahel region, central to the Africa’s Great Green Wall project, can best be described as —
  1. A humid tropical zone separating the Congo Basin and the Indian Ocean.
  2. A semi-arid ecological zone between the Sahara Desert and the African savannas.
  3. A coastal wetland zone along the Gulf of Guinea.
  4. A desert plateau running along the Red Sea coast.

Answer: B

  1. The ‘Blue Helmets’ of the United Nations are so called because —
  1. They represent the official emblem of the UN Security Council.
  2. They are Peacekeeping Forces and wear distinct blue helmets symbolizing neutrality and UN authority.
  3. They are members of the UN’s permanent standing army.
  4. They operate only under humanitarian and medical missions.

Answer: B

  1. With reference to Saksham, recently seen in the news, consider the following statements:
  1. It is an indigenously developed Counter-Unmanned Aerial System (CUAS) Grid System.
  2. It has been developed jointly by the Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) and Bharat Electronics Limited (BEL).
  3. The system integrates real-time sensor data and AI-driven analytics to counter emerging drone threats.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. 1 only
  2. 1 and 3 only
  3. 2 and 3 only
  4. 1, 2, and 3

Answer: B

  1. With reference to the National Red List Roadmap and Vision 2025–2030, consider the following statements:
  1. It is a joint initiative of the Zoological Survey of India (ZSI), Botanical Survey of India (BSI), and IUCN India.
  2. It aims to publish the first national-level Red Data Books for both flora and fauna.
  3. The project includes the assessment of approximately 25,000 species of plants and animals.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. 1 and 2 only
  2. 2 and 3 only
  3. 1 only
  4. 1, 2, and 3

Answer: A

  1. Which of the following statements about the Sawalkote Hydroelectric Project is incorrect?
  1. It is situated on the Chenab River in Jammu and Kashmir.
  2. It is a run-of-the-river project designed with a large reservoir.
  3. It is being developed by the NTPC.
  4. It is one of the largest hydroelectric projects in the Indus basin.

 Answer: C

  1. The Chenab River is also known by which of the following names in ancient and historical texts?
  1. Parushni
  2. Vipasha
  3. Asikni
  4. Vitasta

Answer: C

  1. Under the Indus Waters Treaty (1960), which of the following statements correctly describes India’s rights over the Chenab River?
  1. India has unrestricted consumptive use rights over the Chenab’s water.
  2. India can construct storage reservoirs for agricultural irrigation.
  3. India can use Chenab’s waters for non-consumptive purposes like hydroelectric power.
  4. India cannot utilize Chenab’s waters under any circumstances.

Answer: C

  1. Which of the following statements about Bharat Taxi’s digital infrastructure is correct?
  1. It is operated as part of the National Highway Authority of India’s e-transport initiative.
  2. It is built with support from the National e-Governance Division (NeGD) and integrates with DigiLocker and UMANG.
  3. It is managed under the National Informatics Centre (NIC) exclusively for rural transport.
  4. It operates under the Unified Payments Interface (UPI) framework of NPCI.

Answer: B

  1. The Studentship Program for Ayurveda Research Ken (SPARK) is an initiative of which of the following bodies?
  1. National Commission for Indian System of Medicine (NCISM).
  2. Central Council for Research in Ayurvedic Sciences (CCRAS).
  3. All India Institute of Ayurveda (AIIA).
  4. Indian Council of Medical Research (ICMR).

Answer: B

  1. Which of the following ports have been designated as Green Hydrogen Hubs under the National Green Hydrogen Mission (NGHM)?

A.Deendayal, Paradip, and V.O. Chidambaranar

  1. Cochin, Ennore, and Visakhapatnam
  2. Mumbai, Mormugao, and Tuticorin
  3. Paradip, Haldia, and Kakinada

Answer: A

  1. Which of the following statements about the Biomedical Research Career Programme (BRCP)?
  1. It is an Indo-UK partnership initiative aimed at strengthening biomedical and public health research capacity in India.
  2. Generating patentable discoveries and high-impact publications and enhancing international peer recognition of Indian researchers.
  3. It strengthens India’s biomedical research ecosystem and international collaborations.

How many of the statements given above is/ are correct?

  1. Only 1
  2. Only 2
  3. All are correct
  4. None are correct
  1. With reference to the Times Higher Education (THE) World University Rankings 2026, consider the following statements:

 

  1. Oxford University retained its top position for the tenth consecutive year.
  2. The ranking evaluates universities across five domains, including “Research Quality” and “International Outlook.”
  3. The 2026 edition is the first to use Artificial Intelligence (AI)-assisted bibliometric analysis for research evaluation.
  4. India is the third most represented country after the United States and China.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. 1 and 4 only
  2. 1 and 2 only
  3. 2 and 3 only
  4. 1 and 3 only

Answer: B

  1. Consider the following statements regarding direct recruitment of District Judges in India:
  1. Only practising advocates with at least seven years of experience are eligible for direct recruitment.
  2. After the recent Supreme Court ruling, judicial officers with seven years of Bar experience before joining service are also eligible.
  3. The Governor can appoint District Judges solely based on the recommendation of the State Public Service Commission.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. 1 and 2 only
  2. 2 only
  3. 1 and 3 only
  4. 2 and 3 only

Answer: A

  1. Under Article 233 of the Constitution of India, which one of the following authorities is primarily responsible for the appointment of District Judges?
  1. The President of India, in consultation with the Chief Justice of India.
  2. The Governor of the State, in consultation with the Chief Justice of the High Court of the concerned State.
  3. The Chief Justice of the High Court, in consultation with the Governor of the State.
  4. The State Public Service Commission, in consultation with the High Court.

 Answer: B

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